From both the documentation and this link, I already know that the fact is foo.example.com can set cookies for example.com by sending response with Domain = example.com in the Set-Cookie header. But why is this allowed?
For example, the fact is, a server (say, foo.example.com) cannot set cookies for its siblings (say, bar.example.com) or the domain names lower than it (also known as "its child", say, ide.foo.example.com), but it can set cookies for the domain names higher than it (also known as "its parents", in this case example.com.
Let me make the statement of the question even more clear by putting it into the real world. Just like apps on Google App Engine, foo.appspot.com obviously cannot set cookies for bar.appspot.com because they are two different apps, and they shouldn't affect each other's behavior. But why is it allowed for foo.appspot.com to set cookies for appspot.com by sending Domain = appspot.com in its response header? By doing this the foo.appspot.com app can actually affect other apps' behavior on Google App Engine, since the browser will send this cookie when visiting bar.appspot.com, the domain name of which is a child of appspot.com.
I learned all these things about cookies from the Web Development course on Udacity. But I'm really confused with this question. Can anybody help explain this? Thanks in advance. :-)